quarter final draw for the fa cup

[chilled out entertainer]

middlesborough or wba v utd or reading

arsenal or blackburn v man city

chelsea v spurs

plymouth v watford

[Stu M]

We'd have been playing Spurs, then...

 

Assuming of course we'd beaten Chelsea. And Norwich. And Blackpool. And Aldershot.

 

Oh, and Chelmsford.

[Harry J Allstars]

Spurs at home, would have settled for that. I always used to enjoy beating Spurs year in year out.

 

"Normal service has been resumed..."

[Big J R]

Bye bye Spurs, then !!

[FleetFanatic]

You've got to love the arrogance.....

[Slartibartfast]

He is right though.

[Hawkeye]

Originally Posted By: Stu M

We'd have been playing Spurs, then...

Assuming of course we'd beaten Chelsea. And Norwich. And Blackpool. And Aldershot.

Oh, and Chelmsford.

NO we would'nt have. On each of the draws we would have been given a new draw no. according to our alphabetical position in the remaning teams list.

[chilled out entertainer]

ooooooooh check you out.

[gaspode]

Originally Posted By: Hawkeye

NO we would'nt have. On each of the draws we would have been given a new draw no. according to our alphabetical position in the remaning teams list.

Not true. The question of the logic behind the ball numbers was explained in the Guardian some time ago;

"Waiting for the FA Cup to be drawn on Monday," scribbled Lee Wright, a couple of years back, "it made me wonder how the balls are allotted for cup draws. I could see no pattern in the sequence they used ..."

1 Arsenal
2 Southampton
3 Leeds
4 Wolves
5 Burnley or Fulham
6 Chelsea
7 Watford
8 Sheffield United"


Neither could we, but we knew a man who could: the FA's ever-helpful spokesfellow, David Barber.

"There are two elements to how the ball numbers are determined," he patiently explained. "At the top end of the first round draw, the league teams are drawn in alphabetical order, from 1-48, with teams like Bristol City as the low numbers and York City at 48. Then, from 49 onwards, the clubs from the fourth qualifying round go into the draw as they come through, not in alphabetical order.

"When the draw was made on Monday for the quarter-finals, the teams were numbered in relation to how they had been drawn in the previous round. So, Arsenal were numbered one because - of those teams left in the draw - they came out first for the fifth round draw."

Therefore, Sheffield United, if you haven't yet worked it out for yourself, were numbered eight because they came out of the hat, sorry, bowl, last in the fifth round draw of the teams remaining. So now we all know.


Therefore, had we qualified instead of Chelmsford, we would have
been allocated the same numbers as them because it was based on the time of qualification.
Then we would have been allocated the same ball as Aldershot as we would have been drawn immediately after them. And by my (often wrong headed) logic, we would have followed the route as outlined above - that is Blackpool, Norwich, Chelsea, Spurs.

I am sure someone else will come on to point out my errors, but that is how it seems to me

[Harry J Allstars]

So ner.

[Harry J Allstars]

And then had we beaten Spurs and Blackburn we would have got Manchester United in the Final. FACT!!

 

It's at Wembley you know.