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Techincal question


BOROMAN

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Can somebody explain to me why England definatley have one of the best two second places.

 

If Czech Republic win their last game in Group One, they will have 27 points from a possible 36 = 75% of possible points

 

If Sweden win their last game in Group Eight, they will have 24 points from a possible 30 = 80% of possible points.

 

If England loose to Poland they will have 22 points from a possible 30 = 73% of possible points.

 

Have I got this wrong, is there a different method of calculation?

 

Can anyone throw some light on this?

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To be serious, the answer is that in the 7-team groups the results against the bottom teams are ignored. On that basis, apparently, England or Poland are guaranteed to be one of the best two runners-up.

 

Thanks to the Independent for explaining that.

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Correct Tom

After all, some groups have seven teams, others only six. No problem - only the results against the teams placed in the top six in the section will be

taken into consideration. This means that for a group with seven teams, the results against the bottom team do not count.

Again, the obvious applies – if two of the second-placed teams have gained more points than any of the other six second-placed teams, they book a direct ticket to Germany. However, in the event of equal points, other factors come into play.

The first tie-breaker is the goal difference from a team's matches against

the top six in their group. Then it is the greater number of goals scored.

Here is where Fair Play comes in: the next factor is the respective teams'

disciplinary ranking, in which yellow cards (one point), red cards (two

points) and suspensions (one point per match suspension) are added up and

the team with fewer points advances directly. In the mathematically

unlikely event that there are still two teams even on all criteria, a

drawing of lots would be the final determining factor.

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